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RE: [HoE] Chips



> -----Original Message-----
> From: Phalen, Patrick [mailto:pphalen@avionics.itt.com]
> Sent: Monday, September 14, 1998 8:33 AM
> To: 'hoe@gamerz.net'
> Subject: RE: [HoE] Chips
> 
<snip>
> Ex: player rolls a 1d8 for a TN 5 and gets a 3.  Spends a white chip
and
> rolls a one!  Stop right there!  He now has gone bust!  Scary.
> 
> Pat
> 
If I remember this discussion from the DL list a few weeks/months ago,
wouldn't he go bust if he had OVER half of the dice are 1s?  So if he
only has two dice both of them would have to be 1s to get 'over' half.
Or am I misremembering (is that a word?)?

Jim H.