[pyrnet] recessives

[Carol Brescher <carol@pyr.uniflex.net>]

Patric,

While I have limited knowledge in the area of genetics, would it be presumptuous of
me
to assume that the opposite might indeed be true. Suppose we can identify a kennel,

line, or a related family of male dogs that have been certified free of a
particular recessive
genetic problem. (And of course are fine examples of our breed.)
Using the same premise, would not indeed the number of carriers
reduce in the overall population causing a decrease in the numbers having the
disease?

Or is there some biological anomaly that will prevent this from happening?

Carol Brescher Boyle
carol@naturaldogfood.com

>
> Date: Thu, 21 Dec 2000 14:05:19 -0800 (PST)
> From: pyrsrgr8@yahoo.com
> Subject: [pyrnet] Heredibility of recessives
>
> Joe,
>
>
> With this statement you are assuming equal use of each dog at every
> generation, which we know is not the case.  I think one of Linda's
> points was that a popular sire can very quickly increase the carrier
> incidence in the population even if all his offspring subsequently are
> not used more than average.  However, each time a carrier from those
> lines happens to become popular and produce a larger number of
> offspring, the incidence in the population again jumps.
>
> So, with the assumption that future dogs are used to an equal level
> (that means approximately the same number in subsequent are used, and
> used to produce about the same number of offspring), *then* any time a
> popular stud is a carrier, then number of carriers takes a leap upwards
> in the population.
>
> Without doing some population modelling on this, we can't say when this
> accumulation would plateau, but my guess is that a simple recessive
> should accumulate until it reaches somewhere between 0-50% of the whole
> population being carriers.
>